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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-065 exam questions and answers below. Which call control device does the Cisco DX650 use? A. Video Communications Server B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager C. Cisco TelePresence Server D. Cisco TelePresence Manager E. Video Communications Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager F. Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco TelePresence Server Answer: B
A customer requires scheduled Cisco TelePresence video conferencing and the capability for ad hoc conferencing. Which product would be recommended for the customer? A. Cisco TMS and an MCU with port capacity that can fulfill both needs B. Cisco TMS with an MCU and Cisco Unified CM with an MCU C. Cisco TMS with two MCUs D. Cisco Unified CM with two MCUs E. Cisco Conductor with an MCU F. Cisco Conductor integrated with Cisco TMS and an MCU Answer: B
Which two protocols can be used with the Cisco TelePresence Content Server to allow users to share content from their laptops? (Choose two.) A. BFCP B. H.239 C. PCoIP D. Switched Presentation E. SCCP F. RDP Answer: A, B
A Unified Communications engineer wants to configure a Cisco TelePresence SX endpoint using static IP addressing to use a different TFTP server. Which path will allow the engineer to complete this configuration? A. Network Services > Network 1 > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off B. Network > TFTP > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off C. Network Services > TFTP > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off D. Configuration > System Configuration > Provisioning > Set the External Manager Address Answer: D
Which video-bridging solution supports single-screen units and multiscreen systems and keeps multiscreen units grouped together logically during a call? A. Cisco MCU B. Cisco PVDM C. Cisco TelePresence Server D. Cisco TMS E. Cisco TCS Answer: C
Topic 1, Video Concepts
Which four features are provided by Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose four.) A. Scheduling of video conference calls B. Built-in-bridge functionality for multiparty video conferences C. SIP-H.323 protocol interworking D. Centralized management of conference resources E. SMTP email event notification F. Endpoint configuration backup and restore G. Cisco TelePresence endpoint automated redundancy H. Automated resource optimization Answer: A, D, E, F
When you register the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 video system with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, what is the most important item for the registration to be input into the server? A. the IPv4 address of the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 B. the IP telephone media access control address that is used to manage the system C. the media access control address of the Ethernet port of the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 D. The Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 will always automatically register with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server. Answer: C
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Share some MCSD 70-498 exam questions and answers below. Your company network includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server and Microsoft System Center 2012. Your company launches a new customer sales portal. It is critical that all issues identified as potential bugs get addressed in a timely manner. You need to ensure that incident response times are managed across support and development teams. What should you do? A. Use Service Manager. B. Create a new incident within System Center and assign it to a bug work item in TFS. C. Use SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) to query the Operations Manager Data Warehouse and create work items. D. Use Orchestrator. Answer: A
You are a scrum master. You need to lead the daily scrum meeting.Which three questions should you ask? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.) A. What will be done before the next meeting? B. What went well? C. What has been accomplished since the last meeting? D. Are there any potential improvements? E. What obstacles are in the way? F. Is the burndown up to date? Answer: ACE
Your development team uses Scrum as its process framework. You are attempting to increase efficiency, code quality, and limit scope creep by making some changes to your team's development process. You need to identify key metrics for measuring the effect of any changes to your process.Which three key metrics should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. A. number of story points delivered during the sprint B. number of manual test cases created C. number of bugs reported by testers D. number of tasks added to the sprint after the sprint starts E. number of classes in the code-base F. number of items added to the product backlog Answer: BCE
You manage a development team that uses the Microsoft Visual Studio Scrum 2.0 process template. You establish a product backlog, allocate backlog items for a sprint, and define the tasks required to complete the sprint. You need to ensure that the agreed upon work is assigned to team members. Who should be responsible for assigning work to team members? A. Team members B. Product owner C. Scrum master D. Team lead Answer: A
You are part of a scrum team that is trying to identify user stories to complete in the next sprint. You and the team need to select user stories for the next sprint. What should you do? A. Have the product owner decide which user stories to complete within the sprint. B. Have the scrum master decide which user stories to complete within the sprint. C. Have the team decide which user stories to complete within the sprint. D. Order the user stories by their story points. Select the top stories based on the team¡¯s velocity. Answer: C
Your development team uses the Microsoft Visual Studio Scrum 2.0 process template. You are the product owner. Your product backlog includes a number of items that appear to have equal priority. However, the items have differing business value, complexity, and risk. You need to order the backlog based on risk, complexity, and business value. What should you do? A. Work on items with the highest ratio of business value to effort first. B. Work on items that have the highest effort first. C. Work on items that have the lowest effort first. D. Assign a risk factor to each product backlog item and work on items with the highest risk factor first. E. Work on items that have the highest business value first. Answer: A
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Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager system report shows high and low call volume patterns? A. CAR report B. QoS by Gateway C. QoS by call types D. Traffic summary E. Traffic summary by extension Answer: D
An end user is experiencing performance issues with their IP phone. Which phone feature could the administrator configure to allow the end user to notify them when issues occur? A. Cisco Quality Report Tool B. System Log Management C. Cisco CDR Analysis and Reporting D. Cisco JTAPI Answer: A
An administrator wants to verify that a new PRI is properly connected to the PSTN status. Which Layer 2 status should be seen? A. MULTIPLE_FRAME_ESTABLISHED B. TEI_ASSIGNED C. LINK_UP D. CONTROLLER_UP Answer: A
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager plug in allows administrators to proactively monitor the overall health of their Cisco cluster? A. RTMT B. Cisco AXL Toolkit C. Cisco CTL Client D. Cisco JTAPI E. Cisco TAPS Answer: A
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication? A. account ID B. password C. PIN D. digest credentials Answer: D
Which scenario allows user A in partition X to call user B in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. User B in partition X is not assigned to any CSS. B. User B in partition Y assigns both partitions to CSS-X. C. User B is not assigned to any partition or CSS. D. User B is assigned to partition Y and assigns to CSS-X. Answer: B
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems? A. Show Connection Status B. Report A Problem C. Advanced Settings D. About Jabber E. Reset Jabber Answer: A
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R1 and R2 OSPF neighbor. Which two statements are true? (Choose two) (Output from show ip ospf neighbors on 2 routers, one of them shows FULL/DR, the other FULL/-, you need to know how were they configured and will they exchange routes) A. They are not neighbors B. R1 (non-DR) will not update its routes to R2 C. Router R2 is configured with ospf point-to-point command (R2 is the router that shows as FULL/-) D. They need to be configured as OSPF NBMA E. R2 should be configured as stub Answer: BC
What is the solution to the fault condition? A. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration delete the tunnel mode ipv6 command. B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0.34 configuration enter the ipv6 address 2026::34:1/122 command. C. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration enter the ip address unnumbered Serial0/0/0.34 command. D. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration delete the tunnel source Serial0/0/0.34 command and enter the tunnel source 2026::34:1/122 command. Answer: A
What is the MTU¡¯s size in a GRE tunnel? A. 1630 B. 1476 C. 1500 D. 1900 Answer: B
What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 configuration enter the ip nat outside command C. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command D. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command Answer: C
What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration add the permit ip 209.65.200.224 0.0.0.3 any command B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 enter the ip access-group edge_security out command. C. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration delete the deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any command D. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration delete the ip access-group edge_security in command and enter the ip access group edge_security out command Answer: A
The fault condition is related to which technology? A. NTP B. IP DHCP Server C. IPv4 OSPF Routing D. IPv4 EIGRP Routing E. IPv4 Route Redistribution F. IPv6 RIP Routing G. IPv6 OSPF Routing H. IPV4 and IPV6 Interoperability I. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: G
What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the BGP process,enter the bgp redistribute-internal command B. Under the BGP process, bgp confederation identifier 65001 command C. Delete the current BGP process and reenter all of the commands using 65002 as the AS number. D. Under the BGP process, delete the neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 command enter the neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 command. Answer: D
The fault condition is related to which technology? A. NTP B. IPv4 OSPF Routing C. IPv6 OSPF Routing D. IPV4 and IPV6 Interoperability E. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: D
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Share some CCNA Routing and Switching 200-125 exam questions and answers below. After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled? A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0 B. Router#show run C. Router#show interface loopback 0 D. Router#show ip interface brief Answer: A
Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true? A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate. B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain. C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate. D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch. Answer: B
How to configure RIPv2? (Choose Two.) A. Enable RIP B. Connect RIP to WAN interface C. Enable no auto-summary D. Enable authentication Answer: AC
When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, how does the interface respond when it receives a BPDU? A. It continues operating normally. B. It goes into a down/down state. C. It becomes the root bridge for the configured VLAN. D. It goes into an errdisable state. Answer: D
Which spanning-tree protocol rides on top of another spanning-tree protocol? A. MSTP B. RSTP C. PVST+ D. Mono Spanning Tree Answer: A
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation? A. application B. presentation C. session D. transport E. internet F. data link Answer: A
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Share some Network Appliance NCDA Certification NS0-158 exam questions and answers below. What must be configured to support inter-cluster Snapmirror relationships? A. Cluster peer relationship B. Intercluster port role C. Junction path for the mirrored volume D. Minimum transfer size Answer: A
Which statement is true about establishing a SnapMirror relationship in clustered data ONTAP? A. It sets up the relationship, but does not start the initial transfer B. It sets up the relationship on the source node only C. It sets up the relationship and starts the initial data transfer D. It sets up the relationship and creates the destination volume Answer: A
You create a 150 GB thick-provisioned volume. In that volume, you create a 50 GB LUN with space-reserve enabled. You create another 50 GB LUN with space-reserve disabled. Before any data is written to either LUN or a Snapshot is taken, how much space will be available in the volume for additional LUNs? A. 150 GB B. 100 GB C. 75 GB D. 50 GB Answer: B
A customer wants to improve write performance on their FAS2552 HA system. The system is built with SAS drives, and they are not interested in purchasing additional disk shelves. The workload consists of mostly small, random overwrites and random reads. What should the customer do to improve performance? A. Enable free space reallocation on the aggregate. B. Enable FlashCache on both nodes. C. Increase the amount of NVRAM in the system. D. Assign a Flash Pool RAID group to the aggregates. Answer: A
Your company just purchased four additional FAS8060 nodes to add to an existing 12-node NAS cluster made up of FAS6290s. After joining the four new nodes, how many more nodes are allowed before you reach the maximum supported configuration for a mixed FAS6290/8060 cluster? A. 8 B. 2 C. 4 D. 16 Answer: A
You have created a storage virtual machine named SVM1 with a NetBIOS name of FILES1 and you have successfully joined the Active Directory domain. You have created a CIFS share called SHARE1 and have given read/write access to all users. Network connectivity has been verified. To which path should the users be mapping? A. \\SHARE1\FILES1 B. \\FILES1\SHARE1 C. \\SVM1\FILES1 D. \\FILES1\SVM1 Answer: B
Which two backup engines are supported within clustered Data ONTAP? (Choose two.) A. SMT ape B. dump C. tape D. xcopy Answer: A,B
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